1 timothy 3:2 and 3:12 and titus 1:6 make references to certain Church job/leadership positions and one wife
Someone has been trying to tell me that these verses mean all people should not have more than one wife
I have been telling that person it means some people at best, that is it only applies to people in the listed Church positions that go with those verses (deacons, elders, bishops or whatever it is translated to) and that it does not apply to other people.
I asked something like what if two would be okay because it is at least one?
That person told me something like, "no one can only mean one."
I responded something like if one only means one and it applies to all men then it is a sin for anyone even Jesus or Paul to be unmarried at any moment in time because 0 wives is a different number of wives than one. But if you tell me it does not apply to all people so that some can be single then you can not say that other people (than deacons, etc) could not have another number of wives like two based on those verses. And if one does not mean one than you can not restrict the number of wives with these verses.
So in summary no matter what they can not use these verses to make a reasonable argument against polygyny, if it applies to everyone all unmarried people are sinners and if it does not apply to everyone they have no argument against polygyny for other people.
They tried to claim that the word "but" could possibly mean no more than one. The word "but" appears in NIV but the word "but" does not appear in King James which is a word for word translation.
However they did say something like they will have to do more research on the topic.
Keywords: [tag]people[/tag], [tag]verses[/tag], [tag]word[/tag], [tag]mean[/tag]
Site Description: Christianity forum