The statement is often made that if a woman commits adultery, according to the scriptures, this is cause for a divorce. This statement would perhaps be followed by a quotation of Mathew 5:32.
To my understanding, this is an erroneous interpretation or misunderstanding of what the scriptures actually say. I may be wrong, but I doubt it. Follow me with this reasoning. Lets carefully examine what the text states.
"But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery."
Note carefully that the operative word here is fornication. According to the scriptures, a woman that is already married cannot commit fornication, any sexual impropriety on her part would be deemed as adultery. It is only a man whether married or unmarried that can commit fornication. The only woman that can commit fornication is an unmarried one.
So what Jesus was actually saying here is that if a man marries a woman, and on her wedding night was not found to be a virgin, then the husband would have reason to divorce her because she played the harlot in her fathers house.
Adultery therefore is not a valid reason or excuse that one can use to lawfully divorce his wife according to the scriptures. We are expected to be forgiving as Jesus forgives us of our sins. In this light, the Titus teaching of a bishop or deacon who is blameless and the husband of one (his first wife) makes more sense to me. For a spiritual leader to truly reflect Christ, he must still be married to his first wife regardless of how many wives he has, he must not be a divorcée, otherwise he would be proven to be a man with an unforgiving spirit, hence he would be unfit to lead a flock.
Keywords: [tag]fornication[/tag], [tag]adultery[/tag], [tag]woman[/tag], [tag]scriptures[/tag]
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