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"BOSTON — The federal law banning gay marriage is unconstitutional because it interferes with the right of a state to define the institution and therefore denies married gay couples some federal benefits, a federal judge ruled Thursday in Boston."


My first thought was "What right does a State actually have to define marriage in the first place, and why does it have any right to do so?"

Seeing that different religions have different marriage practices I don’t understand how a State can decide what marriage is and therefore define it, which would obviously violate the rights of some of the individuals of that State forcing them to follow a definition of marriage that is not supported by their religious doctrine. The Constitution specifically guarantees protection of the free practice of religion, and different religions have different definitions of marriage, therefore how is it possible for a State to definition marriage without forcing some of its residents to follow a religious doctrine different than what their religion allows.

As I thought about it, I wondered what the implications might be for "Biblical Marriage" because of the ruling. Most assuredly it is a blow to the ultra right wing "Christians" wanting marriage to be legally defined as one man and one woman only.

Your thoughts?


Keywords: [tag]marriage[/tag], [tag]state[/tag], [tag]different[/tag], [tag]right[/tag]

Site Description: Christianity forum

Category: [category]Religion[/category]




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